Students must start practicing the questions from RBSE 12th Biology Model Papers E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Papers in English Medium provided here.
RBSE Class 12 E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Papers in English
RBSE Class 10 E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Paper 1 in English
Time: 2:45 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions to the Examinees :
- Candidate must write first his/her Roll No. on the question paper compulsorily.
- All the questions are compulsory.
- Write the answer to each question in the given answer book only.
- For questions having more than one part the answers to those parts are to be written together in continuity.
- An internal choice has been provided in questions 16 to 20.
Section – A
Question 1.
Select the correct option of the following questions and write in answer book.
(i) During oogenesis, each diploid oocyte produces: [1]
(a) two functional eggs and two polar bodies
(b) four functional polar bodies
(c) four functional ova
(d) one functional egg and three polar bodies
(ii) Tapetum is: [1]
(a) outer layer of pollen sac
(b) middle layer of pollen sac
(c) third layer of pollen sac
(d) innermost layer of pollen sac
(iii) Which one is a dominant trait out of the characters chosen by Mendet? [1]
(a) Pod colour-yellow
(b) Seed colour-yellow
(c) Plant height-dwarf
(d) Flower position-Axillary
(iv) The equivalent of a structural gene is : [1]
(a) muton
(b) cistron
(c) operon
(d) recon
(v) Which part of poppy plant yields opium ? [1]
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dried seeds
(vi) Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early month of pregnancy gave birth to child with : [1]
(a) no spleen
(b) hare lip
(c) extra fingers and toes
(d) under developed limbs.
(vii) Somaclonal variation is seen in: [1]
(a) tissue culture grown plants
(b) apomictics
(c) polyploids
(d) vegetatively propagative plants.
(viii) First food enzyme produced using recombinant DNA technology : [1]
(a) trypsin
(b) chymosin
(c) insulin
(d) lypase
(ix) Gene, that encode the structure of Insulin located on : [1]
(a) small arm of chromosome 11
(b) long arm of chromosome 11
(c) small arm of chromosome 12
(d) long arm of chromosome 12
Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks.
(i) Murrah of Punjab is a breed of …………….. [1]
(ii) The Gir Forest is located in …………….. [1]
(iii) …………….. is the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. [1]
(iv) The second trophic level in a lack is …………….. [1]
Question 3.
Give the Answer to the following questions in one word or one line.
(i) Given an example of a human disorder that is caused due to a single gene mutation. [1]
(ii) Give an example of a sex-linked recessive disorder in humans. [1]
(iii) What is sporogeny in malarial parasite ? [1]
(iv) Define artificial insemination. [1]
(v) Define biotechnology. [1]
(vi) Which gene control the com borer ? [1]
(vii) Define the pyramid of biomass. [1]
(vii) Define genetic diversity. [1]
Section – B
Short Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 50 words).
Question 4.
Name any three sexually transmitted disease. [2]
Question 5.
Write three symptoms of AIDS. [2]
Question 6.
Find out what are the various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro ? [2]
Question 7.
What is the major advantage of producing plants by micropropagation ? [2]
Question 8.
Name of enzymes that help in the formation of r-DNA are : [2]
Question 9.
Explain the role of restriction endonuclease in the formation of recombinant DNA. Draw a labelled diagram of E. coil cloning vector pBR322. Name the enzymes that helps in the formation of recombinant DNA technology ? [2]
Question 10.
What do ‘cry genes’ in Bacillus thuringiensis code for ? State its importance for cotton crop. [2]
Question 11.
Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydrocarbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and chemistry of oil ? [2]
Question 12.
Draw a ‘pyramid of numbers’ of a situation where a large population of insect feed upon a very big tree. The insects in turn, are eaten by small birds which in turn are fed upon by big birds. [2]
Question 13.
Write three examples of Climatic Factors. [2]
Question 14.
What is IUCN red list ? Give any two uses of this list. [2]
Question 15.
What is ex-situ conservation. [2]
Section – C
Long Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words).
Question 16.
What is Spare Formation ? Explain with example. [3]
OR
Write short notes on the following. [3]
(i) Runner
(ii) Sucker
(iii) Stolen
Question 17.
Differentiate between homozygous and heterogyous. [3]
OR
Explain the inheritance of colour blindness. [3]
Question 18.
What is innate immunity ? How many types of barriers are present in innate immunity ? Write down their names. [3]
OR
Differentiate between infectious and non-infectious disease. [3]
Section – D
Essay Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words)
Question 19.
Write short notes on the following : [4]
(1)Entomophily
(2) Chiropterophily.
OR
Write the Pollination Process in Salvia. [4]
Question 20.
What do you mean by transcription ? Write Short notes on the following: [4]
(a) Promotor
(b) Structural gene
(c) Terminator region.
OR
Draw the clover leaf model of RNA molecule. [4]
RBSE Class 10 E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Paper 2 in English
Section – A
Question 1.
Select the correct option of the following questions and write in answer book.
(i) Clones are : [1]
(a) genetically similar to the parent plant
(b) paints raised from a single parent
(c) population of plants produced vegetatively
(d) all of the above
(ii) Double fertilization involves: [1]
(a) Fertilization of egg by two gametes
(b) Fertilization of two egg in the same embryo sac by two sperms brought by one pollen tube
(c) Fertilization of egg and central cell by two sperms brought by different pollen tube
(d) Fertilization of egg and central cell by two sperms brought by same pollen
(iii) Which plant was selected by Mendel for his experiments ? [1]
(a) Pisum
(b) Mangifera
(c) Pinus
(d) Mrchis
(iv) Which one of the following is the starter codon ? [1]
(a) UAA
(b) UAG
(c) AUG
(d) UGA
(v) Aflatoxin is produced by: [1]
(a) virus
(b) fungus
(c) bacterian
(d) nematode
(vi) Kala azar is transmitted by: [1]
(a) sandfly
(b) tse-tse-fly
(c) housefly
(d) mosquitoes
(vii) Which one is correctly matched ? [1]
(a) Apiculture: Honey bee
(b) Pisciculture : Silk Moth
(c) Sericulture : Fish
(d) Aquaculture: Mosquitoes
(viii) One of the following process involves southern blotting techniques : [1]
(a) r-DNA technology
(b) cutting of genes
(c) DNA finger printing
(d) production of transgenic species
(ix) Which one is not related to agriculture biotechnology ? [1]
(a) Increase crop production
(b) Inhibition of a Innate gene
(c) To get better flavor
(d) Improve nutritional value
Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks :
(i) A cross between male donkey and Female horse produces ………………. [1]
(ii) Chipko movement was launched for the Protection of ………………. [1]
(iii) DNA was first isolated by ………………. in 1869 . [1]
(iv) Secondary producers are ………………. [1]
Question 3.
Give the answer of the following questions in one word or one line :
(i) What is monohybrid cross ? [1]
(ii) Define dominant factor. [1]
(iii) What is Cancer ? [1]
(iv) What do you mean by Pasturage ? [1]
(v) Can you define why plasmids autonomously replicate in host cell ? [1]
(vi) Write the scientific name of the bacteria that produce Bt toxin. [1]
(vii) What are decomposers ? [1]
(viii) Name two National parks of India. [1]
Section – B
Short Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 50 words) :
Question 4.
What do you understand by test-tube baby ? [2]
Question 5.
Write causative organism of following sexually transmitted disease. [2]
(i) Ganorrhoea,
(ii) Syphilis,
(iii) Genital herpes
Question 6.
How is ‘somatic hybridization’ carried out ? Mention one example of a somatic hybrid ? [2]
Question 7.
Name three indigenous breeds of cattle. [2]
Question 8.
Write three characters of the engineered vector. [2]
Question 9.
What do you understand by lac-operon ? [2]
Question 10.
What are probes ? How does they used in Molecular diagnosis ? [2]
Question 11.
What is biopiracy ? Why should nations develop laws against biopiracy ? [2]
Question 12.
What is ecological succession ? Name the pioneer of xerosere and hydrosere. [2]
Question 13.
Write name of any three stages of hydrosere. [2]
Question 14.
What are sacred groves ? What is their role in biodiversity conservation ? [2]
Question 15.
What is cryopreservation ? Give its one use. [2]
Section – C
Long Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words):
Question 16.
What do you understand by layering ? Explain air layering. [3]
OR
Define the following terms : [3]
(i) Monoecious
(ii) Dioecious
(iii) Gametogenesis
Question 17.
Describe the law of segregation with flow chart. [3]
OR
Explain back cross with the help of a flow chart. [3]
Question 18.
In which way has the study of biology helped us to control infectious diseases ? [3]
OR
Answer the questions according to instruction. [3]
(a) Typhoid : Pathogen name, mode of transmission, incubation period.
(b) Pneumonia : Pathogen name, mode of transmission, incubation period.
Section – D
Essay Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words):
Question 19.
With suitable diagram, describe the development of dicot embryo. [4]
OR
With suitable diagram, describe the development of monocot embryo. [4]
Question 20.
Explain various types of RNA. [4]
OR
Write the process of transcription in prokaryotes in brief. [4]
RBSE Class 10 E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Paper 3 in English
Section – A
Question 1.
Select the correct option of the following questions and write in answer book.
(i) Animals giving birth to young ones are : [1]
(a) viviparous
(b) oviparous
(c) ovoviviparous
(d) both (a) and (b)
(ii) When pollen tube enters through micropyle then the process is called : [1]
(a) Porogamy
(b) Mesogamy
(c) Chalazogamy
(d) Apogamy
(iii) A pair of contrasting characters is called : [1]
(a) gene
(b) allele
(c) phenotype
(d) genotype
(iv) Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available present ? [1]
(a) Restriction enzyme
(b) DNA-DNA hybridisation
(c) Polymerase chain reaction
(d) Zinc finger analysis
(v) BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against: [1]
(a) tuberculosis
(b) typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) cholera
(vi) Memory cells are: [1]
(a) cells responsible for immunologic memory
(b) antigen
(c) cells responsible for memory in drain
(d) cells of cerebrum
(vii) Which one of the following is the indegenous breed of chickens ? [1]
(a) plymouth rock
(b) white leghorn
(c) aseel
(d) rhode island red.
(viii) A relaxed plasmid means: [1]
(a) Have only single copy per cell
(b) can’t be purified
(c) does not exist in bacteria
(d) have multiple copies per cell
(ix) We can get desired characters of plant and animals through : [1]
(a) genetic engineering
(b) chromosomal engineering
(c) bonsai technology
(d) ikebana technology
Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :
(i) ……………….. is the technique of staring germplasm and maintaining a specific genetic type (clone). [1]
(ii) The wild life protection Act was introduced in ……………….. [1]
(iii) ……………….. proposed the famous double stranded helical structure of DNA. [1]
(iv) Energy transferred from one trophic level to another is ……………….. [1]
Question 3.
Give the answer of the following questions in one word or one line.
(i) Define Mutation. [1]
(ii) What is pleiotropic gene ? [1]
(iii) What is vaccine ? [1]
(iv) Name the variety of wheat which is resistant to leaf stripe rust and hill bunt. [1]
(v) What are the features of a plamid to be cloned in cell ? [1]
(vi) Mention the chemical changes that proinsulin undergoes, to be able to act as mature insulin. [1]
(vii) Define ecosystem. [1]
(viii) Where Kanha National park is located ? [1]
Section – B
Short Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 50 words):
Question 4.
What do you understand by tubectomy ? [2]
Question 5.
Name any three barrier methods of contraception. [2]
Question 6.
What is inbreeding ? Write two differences between inbreeding and out breeding. [2]
Question 7.
Write short note on embryo culture. [2]
Question 8.
What is recombinant DNA technique ? [2]
Question 9.
Explain vectorless gene transfer of DNA. Give one example. [2]
Question 10.
How Bt cotton plant is protected against bollworm infestation ? [2]
Question 11.
Write the Full Form of the following : [2]
(i) PCR (ii)CEAC (iii)ADA
Question 12.
What do you Understand by Food Chain ? Give an example of food chain having at least three trophic levels. [2]
Question 13.
Why the pyramid of energy is always, upright ? Explain. [2]
Question 14.
Write three important reasons for biodiversity conservation. [2]
Question 15.
How do human activities cause desertification ? [2]
Section – C
Long Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words):
Question 16.
(a) Differentiate between binary fission and multiple fission. [3]
(b) Give one example for each :
(i) Binary fission
(ii) Multiple fission
(iii) Regeneration
OR
What is Parthenogenesis ? Explain. [3]
Question 17.
Define the following terms : [3]
(i) Phenotype
(ii) Genotype
(iii) Gene.
OR
What do you understand by polygenic inheritance ? Explain with an example. [3]
Question 18.
Write short note on the following : [3]
(i) Opium
(ii) Morphine
OR
Write down the reason of drug addiction. [3]
Section – D
Essay Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words):
Question 19.
Write four advantages and four disadvantages of cross pollination. [4]
OR
Write a short note on pollen pistil interaction. [4]
Question 20.
Give a detail note on transcription in eukaryotic cells. [4]
OR
Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription. [4]
RBSE Class 10 E-Biology Self Evaluation Test Paper 4 in English
Section – A
Question 1.
Select the correct option of the following questions and write in answer book.
(i) The organism similar to parent can be obtained by : [1]
(a) zygote
(b) gametes
(c) seeds
(d) binary fission
(ii) The edible part of apple fruit is : [1]
(a) ovary
(b) seeds
(c) flashy thalamus
(d) placenta
(iii) The male human has : [1]
(a) 23 + XX
(b) 23 + XY
(c) 44 + XY
(d) 44 + XX
(iv) Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac Operon ? [1]
(a) Lactose
(b) Lactose and Galactose
(c) Glucose
(d) Galactose
(v) Which of the following pair is correct ? [1]
(a) E. coli – Entamoeba hisolytica
(b) Culex – Elephantiasis
(c) Bed bug – kala azar
(d) Plasmodium – sleeping sickness
(vi) Antigen-binding site in an antibody is found between- [1]
(a) two light chains
(b) two heavy chains
(c) one heavy and one light chain
(d) either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain.
(vii) Exotic breed of honey bee is: [1]
(a) Apis darsata
(b) A. indica
(c) A. florae
(d) A. mellifera
(viii) In vitro studies are performed in : [1]
(a) nature
(b) human body
(c) lab
(d) plant body
(ix) Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes? [1]
(a) Retrovirus
(b) Ti Plasmid
(c) X Phage
(d) pBR322
Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks.
(i) ……………. is a new allopolyploid crop of wheat developed by humans. [1]
(ii) Diversity of habitat in a geographic area is ……………. [1]
(iii) ……………. joins the small fragments of DNA of a lagging strand during DNA replication. [1]
(iv) CO2 content in atmosphere is about ……………. [1]
Question 3.
Give the answer of the following questions in one word or one line.
(i) What are mutagens ? [1]
(ii) Write the genotype of a person having Tumers’s syndrome. [1]
(iii) Define interferons. [1]
(iv) Name the varieties of a cauliflower which are resistant to black rot and curl blight black rot. [1]
(v) Why is it necessary to incorporate alien DNA into vector DNA ? [1]
(vi) Write the two specific ‘cry’ genes that encode the proteins which control cotton bollworms. [1]
(vii) A smaller food chain is said to be more efficient than a larger one. Why ? [1]
(viii) Write full form of CAZRI. [1]
Section – B
Short Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 50 words)
Question 4.
What do you mean by lactation amenorrhoea ? Explain. [2]
Question 5.
What do you understand by vasectomy ? Explain. [2]
Question 6.
Name three improved breed of cow. [2]
Question 7.
What is the contribution of swaminathan in wheat production in India. [2]
Question 8.
What is cloning vector ? Give one example. [2]
Question 9.
What are restriction endonuclease ? Name two restriction endonuclease. [2]
Question 10.
Mention the cause of ADA deficiency in human. How has genetical engineering helped patient suffering from it ? [2]
Question 11.
Give three advantages of transgenic crop or transgenic animals. [2]
Question 12.
What do you mean by decomposers ? Give one suitable example. [2]
Question 13.
What will happen to an ecosystem if- [2]
(a) All producers are removed.
(b) All organisrps of herbivore level are eliminated; and
(c) All top carnivore population is removed.
Question 14.
What do you understand by in situ conservation ? [2]
Question 15.
Write three major causes of species losses in a geographical area. [2]
Section – C
Long Answer Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words)
Question 16.
What is artificial vegetative propagation ? List four plants that can grow by cutting. [3]
Or
Write short notes on the following: [3]
(i) Rhizome
(ii) Tubers
(iii) Corm
Question 17.
What is linkage ? Explain complete linkage with example. [3]
OR
Write short notes on the following : [3]
(i) Euploidy
(ii) Aneuploidy
Question 18.
(a) Write three ways of transmission of HIV. [3]
(b) Write three control measures of AIDS.
OR
Name the causative organisms of following diseases. [3]
(i) Pneumonia
(ii) Typhoid
(iii) Tuberculosis
(v) Malaria
(v) Common cold
(vi) Chikungunya.
Section – D
Essay Type Questions (Answer word limit 100 words)
Question 19.
What do you mean by double fertilization ? Write two significance of double fertilization. [4]
OR
What is endosperm ? Explain three types of endosperms with diagrams. [4]
Question 20.
Write the characteristic features of Genetic code. Name initiation and terminator codon. [4]
OR
What do you understand by regulation of gene expression ? Write the levels of gene regulation. [4]
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